2024年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 （全国甲卷）（适用四川、陕西、西藏、青海、宁夏、内蒙古）

甲卷听力,奇速英语,22分钟

第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)

第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例: How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.

答案是C。

1. Where are the speakers going?

A. A new restaurant.

B. A convenience store.

C. Their office.

2. When is the class presentation according to Vicky?

A. On Thursday.

B. On Wednesday.

C. On Tuesday.

3.Why does the woman make the call?

A. To check the price.

 

 

C. To cancel her order.

4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Husband and wife.

B. Boss and employee.

C. Salesperson and customer.

5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?

A. Their move to a new place.

B. Tom’s friends at school.

C. A sports center.

第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What does the girl tell her dad?

A. She decides to quit college.

B. She worries about her academic ability.

C. She is unpopular with her classmates.

7. How does the father help his daughter?

A. By telling a funny joke.

B. By sharing his own story.

C. By planning a school tour.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题

8. Who is the man?

A. A researcher.

B. A bird watcher.

C. A radio host.

9. When do birds sing quieter?

A. On weekend mornings.

B. During rush hours.

C. In early evenings.

10. What is Dr. Zollinger going to do next?

A. Summarize her studies.

B. Play some recordings.

C. Answer more questions.

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. Where was Jena born?

A. In Canada.

B. In Japan.

C. In Australia.

12. How old was Mike when he left Glasgow?

A. Five. B. Six. C. Ten.

13. What do we know about Mike’s parents?

A. They enjoy living abroad.

B. They first met at the age of 20.

C. They will start their own company.

听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。

14. What is the first question to Mr. Green about?

A. His adventure in space.

B. His physical condition.

C. His doctor’s advice.

15. How does Mr. Green feel about traveling to Mars?

A. It’s unlikely to happen.

B. It’s physically demanding.

C. It’s a chance not to be missed.

16. Which is Mr. Green’s favorite movie?

A. Apollo 13.

B. Blue Earth.

C. Space Station.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. What is the speaker doing?

A. Giving a report.

B. Introducing a musical play.

C. Making an announcement.

18. What are the students expected to do?

A. Cary school flags.

B. Wear fun clothes.

C. Design fancy masks.

19. Where can the parents stand and watch?

A. On the sidewalk.

B. On the playground.

C. In front of the office.

20. What should the students do if they don’t take part?

A. Let their teacher know.

B. Stay in the lecture hall.

C. Do some reading.

 

 

第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分)第一节 (共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Each ARTS FIRST festival is a unique annual celebration of the Harvard community’s artistic creativity. We invite you to join us for the coming ARTS FIRST. We look forward to welcoming you as we showcase the creativity of the Harvard arts community through performances, art exhibitions and art-making activities. The festival is a public event for Harvard and community members of all ages.Light Awash in Watercolor Learn about the materials and qualities of watercolor paint with experts from the Harvard Art Museums Materials Lab. Try your hand at some of the painting tricks used by artists whose works will be in the upcoming exhibition of American Watercolors, 1880-1990: Into the Light.Spineless Artists:Invertebrate Creativity From webs to cocoons, invertebrates (无脊椎动物) create some of nature’s most delicate and beautiful designs. Join Javier Marin from the Harvard Museum of Natural History to learn how insects and other invertebrates dance, inspire fashion and create art, while making your own spineless artists out of craft (手工艺) materials.Wheel Throwing Join instructors from the Ceramics Program and great potters from Quincy, Cabot and Mather Houses for demonstrations using the potter’s wheel. Then create your own masterpiece!Knitting and Pom-Pom Making Join the Harvard Undergraduate Knitting Circle to make pom-poms and tassels out of thread, or pick up a pair of needles and learn to knit (编织). 21. What do we know about ARTS FIRST?A. It is an exhibition of oil paintings.B. It offers art courses for all ages.C. It presents recreational activities.D. It is a major tourist attraction.22. Which program will you join if you’re interested in drawing pictures?A. Light Awash in Watercolor.B. Spineless Artists: Invertebrate Creativity.C. Wheel Throwing.D. Knitting and Pom-Pom Making.23.What can you do together with Javier Marin?A. Practice a traditional dance.B. Make handcrafts.C. Visit a local museumD. Feed invertebrates.

B

Animals can express their needs using a lot of ways. For instance,almost all animals have distinct vocals (声音) that they rely on to either ask for help, scare away any dangerous animals or look for shelter. But cats are special creatures who possess amazing vocalization skills. They are able to have entire conversations with humans using meows and you’re able to interpret it. If a pet cat is hungry, it will keep meowing to attract attention and find food. However, when a cat is looking for affection, they tend to produce stretched and soft meows. Meowing starts as soon as a baby cat is brought to life and uses it to get the mother’s attention and be fed.

Cats have many heightened senses, but their sense of smell is quite impressive. They use their noses to assess their environment and look out for any signs of danger. They will sniff out specific areas before they choose a place to relax. However, another way the cats are able to distinguish between situations is by looking for familiar smells. Your cat will likely smell your face and store the smell in its memory and use it to recognize you in the future. That’s why most pet cats are able to tell immediately if their owners were around any other cats, which they don't usually like.

Dogs are known for their impressive fetching habit, but cats take this behavior up a notch. Many cats will find random objects outside and bring them to their owners. This is a very old habit that’s been present in all kinds of predators (食肉动物). Cats bring gifts for their owners to show they love you. These adorable little hunters are just doing something that it’s been in their nature since the beginning of time. So just go along with it!

24.What can be learned about cats’ meowing from the first paragraph?

A. It’s a survival skill.

B. It’s taught by mother cats.

C. It’s hard to interpret.

D. It’s getting louder with age.

25. How does a pet cat assess different situations?

A. By listening for sounds.

B. By touching familiar objects.

C. By checking on smells.

D. By communicating with other cats.

26. Which best explains the phrase “take ... up notch” in paragraph 3?

A. Perform appropriately.

B. Move faster.

C. Act strangely.

D. Do better.

27. What is a suitable title for the text?

A. Tips on Finding a Smart Cat

B. Understanding Your Cat’s Behavior

C. Have Fun with Your Cat

D. How to Keep Your Cat Healthy

C

The Saint Lukas train doesn’t accept passengers -it accepts only the sick. The Saint Lukas is one of five government-sponsored medical trains that travel to remote towns in central and eastern Russia. Each stop lasts an average of two days, and during that time the doctors and nurses on board provide rural (乡村) populations with basic medical care, X-ray scans and prescriptions.

“People started queuing to make an appointment early in the morning,” says Emile Ducke, a German photographer who traveled with the staff of the Saint Lukas for a two-week trip in November through the vast regions (区域) of Krasnoyarsk and Khakassia.(浪哥英语)Russia’s public health care service has been in serious need of modernization. The government has struggled to come up with measures to address the problem, particularly in the poorer, rural areas east of the Volga River, including arranging doctor’s appointments by video chat and expanding financial aid programs to motivate doctors to practice medicine in remote parts of the country like Krasnoyarsk.

The annual arrival of the Saint Lukas is another attempt to improve the situation. For 10 months every year, the train stops at about eight stations over two weeks, before returning to the regional capital to refuel and restock (补给). Then it starts all over again the next month. Most stations wait about a year between visits.

Doctors see up to 150 patients every day. The train’s equipment allows for basic checkups. “I was very impressed by the doctors and their assistants working and living in such little space but still staying focused and very concerned,” says Ducke. “They were the best chance for many rural people to get the treatment they want.”

28. How is the Saint Lukas different from other trains?

A. It runs across countries.

B. It reserves seats for the seniors.

C. It functions as a hospital.

D. It travels along a river.

29. What can we infer from paragraph 3 about Krasnoyarsk?

A. It is heavily populated.

B. It offers training for doctors.

C. It is a modern city.

D. It needs medical aid.

30. How long can the Saint Lukas work with one supply?

A. About a year.

B. About ten months.

C. About two months.

D. About two weeks.

31. What is Ducke’s attitude toward the Saint Lukas’ services?

A. Appreciative.

B. Doubtful

C. Ambiguous.

D. Cautious.

D

“I didn’t like the ending,” I said to my favorite college professor. It was my junior year of undergraduate, and I was doing an independent study on Victorian literature. I had just finished reading The Mill on the Floss by George Eliot, and I was heartbroken with the ending. Prof. Gracie, with all his patience, asked me to think about it beyond whether I liked it or not. He suggested I think about the difference between endings that I wanted for the characters and endings that were right for the characters, endings that satisfied the story even if they didn’t have a traditionally positive outcome. Of course, I would have preferred a different ending for Tom and Maggie Tulliver, but the ending they got did make the most sense for them.

This was an aha moment for me, and I never thought about endings the same way again. From then on, if I wanted to read an ending guaranteed to be happy, I’d pick up a love romance. If I wanted an ending I couldn’t guess, I’d pick up a mystery (悬疑小说). One where I kind of knew what was going to happen, historical fiction. Choosing what to read became easier.

But writing the end—that’s hard. It’s hard for writers because endings carry so much weight with readers. You have to balance creating an ending that’s unpredictable, but doesn’t seem to come from nowhere, one that fits what’s right for the characters.

That's why this issue (期) of Writer’s Digest aims to help you figure out how to write the best ending for whatever kind of writing you’re doing. If it’s short stories, Peter Mountford breaks down six techniques you can try to see which one helps you stick the landing. Elizabeth Sims analyzes the final chapters of five great novels to see what key points they include and how you can adapt them for your work.

This issue won’t tell you what your ending should be—that’s up to you and the story you’re telling—but it might provide what you need to get there.

32. Why did the author go to Prof. Gracie?

A. To discuss a novel.

B. To submit a book report.

C. To argue for a writer.

D. To ask for a reading list.

33. What did the author realize after seeing Prof Gracie?

A. Writing is a matter of personal preferences.

B. Readers are often carried away by characters

C. Each type of literature has its unique ending

D.A story which begins well will end well

34. What is expected of a good ending?

A. It satisfies readers’ taste.

B. It fits with the story development.

C. It is usually positive.

D. It is open for imagination.

35. Why does the author mention Peter Mountford and Elizabeth Sims?

A. To give examples of great novelists.

B. To stress the theme of this issue.

C. To encourage writing for the magazine.

D. To recommend their new books.

第二节 (共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(浪哥英语)What is moderation (适度)? Basically，it means eating only as much food as your body needs. You should feel satisfied at the end of a meal, but not too full. ____36____ But it doesn’t mean saying goodbye to the foods you love.

Take your time. It’s important to slow down and think about food as something nutritious rather than just something to eat in between meetings.____37____It actually takes a few minutes for your brain to tell your body that it has had enough food, so eat slowly and stop eating before you feel full.

Eat with others whenever possible. Eating alone, specially in front of the TV or computer, often leads to mindless overeating. And be careful about the foods you keep at hand. It’s more challenging to eat in moderation if you have unhealthy snacks at the ready, like cookies. ____38____

Control emotional(情绪的)eating.____39____Many of us also turn to food to deal with unpleasant emotions such as sadness, loneliness, or boredom. But by learning healthier ways to manage emotions, you can regain control over the food you eat and your feelings.

____40____ A healthy breakfast can start your metabolism (新陈代谢), while eating small, healthy meals keeps your energy up all day. Avoid eating late at night. Try to eat dinner earlier and fast for 14—16 hours until breakfast the next morning. Studies suggest that eating only when you’re most active and giving your digestive system a long break each day may help to regulate weight.

A. Eat properly throughout the day.

B. We don’t always eat just to satisfy hunger.

C. Don’t swallow a meal on the way to work.

D. Most of us need to double the amount we eat.

E. Instead, surround yourself with healthy choices.

F. For many of us, moderation means eating less than we do now.

G. That won’t lead to cheating or giving up on your new eating plan.

第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分45分)

第一节 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。

One day, we had a family dinner. While the adults were busy with their serious talk outside, I was left alone in the ____41____ to help my grandmother wash dishes.____42____my grandmother would tell me stories about her childhood.

Born just before WWI,my grandmother____43____

an entirely different childhood lifestyle from mine. She did not have a chance to go to____44____. Like in typical families, where boys were____45____ much more than girls, my grandma had to stay at home to do____46____. The only opportunity (机会)she could seize to____47____was when her brother was having Chinese____48____with the family tutor. She would sit quietly at the far end of the long dinner table, listening____49____. This training taught her to read and write her Chinese upside down—a skill that has turned out to be quite____50____, especially whenever we share the newspaper. On most weekends, my grandmother, a young girl then，and her brother would go to the____51____. There, they would walk through deep water, sit down cross-legged underwater and hold their ____52____while they watched all action going on around them. This is something I____53____—her ability to open her____54____ underwater and still sit comfortably on the seabed.

My childhood is quite____55____compared with hers. I am____56____that I did not need to____57____the hardships like she did. I’ve never faced the problem of____58____.I guess our different childhood background is what makes my grandmother such an amazing person to____59____to:her stories always make my history textbooks____60____.

41.A. sitting room B. kitchen C. yard D. dining hall

42.A.As always B. By the way

C. For example D. Here and now

43.A.adjusted B. promoted

C.achieved D. experienced

44.A. work B. school C.court D. press

45.A.favored B. tolerated

C. trusted D.acknowledged

46.A. gardening B.homework

C. business D.housework

47. A. exercise B. study C. explore D. teach

48.A.food B. guests C. lessons D. tea

49.A.closely B. directly C. nervously D. freely

50.A.professional B. awkward

C. simple D. practical

51. A. market B. mountain C. beach D. class

52.A.secret B. breath C. view D. tongue

53.A.admire B. notice C. adopt D. value

54.A.hands B. mouth C. eyes D. arms

55.A. difficult B.complex C. happy D. similar

56.A. grateful B. surprised C.convinced D. regretful

57. A.reflect upon B. go through

C. ask about D. prepare for

58.A.unemployment B.health

C.education D.communication

59.A. attend B. refer C. lead D. talk

60. A. come true B. come round

C.come out C.come alive

第二节 (共10小题；每小题1 . 5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Although parks of all sizes and types exist at any level, the national parks, in particular, tend ____61____ (catch) our attention because of their large size and variety. They are ____62____ (treasure) of American heritage (遗产). How did the national park system come about? On a cool, starry night in mid-September 1870, four men relaxed before a campfire along the Firehole River in ____63____ is now northwestern Wyoming. They ____64____ (be) part of a 15-member exploring party that had spent almost five awesome weeks in witness of the natural beauties there.

What should ____65____ (do) with such a beautiful place? They wondered out loud. This area, with____66____ (it) unique and breathtaking natural beauty, must be well preserved ____67____ all people of the nation to enjoy—as a national park. They all agreed and vowed (承诺) to promote the idea at the____68____ (complete ) of their journey. Their promotional work paid off. Two years later, 18 years before Wyoming became a state, Yellowstone became the first national park in the United States and the world. Yellowstone was the ____69____ (large) United States national park—2.2 million acres—until Wrangell-Saint Elias in southern Alaska, ____70____ became a national monument in 1978, took the honors as a national park in 1980 with 12.3 million acres.

第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分35分)

第一节 短文改错 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有 10 处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号 (∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线 (＼)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：

1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2. 只允许修改10处，多者 (从第11处起)不计分。

Last week, I saw a program about Chongqing hotpot on TV. I was curious but planned a special one-day trip there with a friend of me. Our fast train was packing with passengers. A attendant gave us some travel brochures about Chongqing. When we arrived, we went straight a famous restaurant and ordered dishes, which tasted greatly. The atmosphere here made the meal all the more enjoyed. Hotpot is meant for families and friends to sit together, dip everything they like this in one pot, and shared friendship and love.

第二节 书面表达 (满分25分)英语课要求做课堂展示，请你根据所给图片，以Development of Transport in China为题写一篇发言稿。

 

 

注意：1. 词数100左右；2. 题目和首句已为你写好。Development of Transport in ChinaFrom the vehicle of horses to today’s convenient transport, Chinese transport has an enormous development.

2024 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国甲卷)参考答案

1-5 ACBCA

6-10 BBCAB11-15 ABABC

16-20 ACBCA

21-25 CABAC

26-30 DBCDD

31-35 AACBB

36-40 FCEBA

41-45 BADBA

46-50 DBCAD

51-55 CBACC

56-60 ABCDD

61.to catch 62.treasures 63.what 64. were 65. be done 66.its 67.for 68.completion 69.largest 70.which

71.but→and

72.me→mine

73.packing→packed

74.A→An

75.straight后面加to

76.greatly→great

77.here→there

78.enjoyed→enjoyable

79.删除 this

80.shared→share

参考范文:

From the vehicle of horses to today's convenient transport, Chinese transport has an enormous development. The popularity of shared bicycles offers green and affordable short-distance travel solutions. High-speed trains connect distant cities like beads on a string, shortening travel time dramatically. Meanwhile, the emergence of new energy vehicles advocates for a low-carbon lifestyle and contributes to smog-free urban environments. These advancements not only enhance mobility but also demonstrate China's commitment to innovation and sustainability. As we look to the future, these transformative modes of transport will continue to shape the landscape of Chinese infrastructure and improve the quality of life for its people.

 

 

 

 

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